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« Conscience: The Light of God God: Father and Mother »

Mary's Presence in the Old Testament

Since the beginning of time, there were some signs and indications in the biblical scriptures, that within God dwells the eternal feminine essence which is tenderness and love; in other words, there are clear references to Mary, our Heavenly Mother.

We have reached that time in which all mysteries were to be solved and certainly, the presence of Mary can be traced back to the very First Era.

            "Mary is the divine maternal essence
            that has always existed. She is the
            universal feminine essence that you can
            discover and contemplate in all the
            works of Creation..."

            "You must understand that Mary has
            always existed, inasmuch as Her essence,
            Her love, Her tenderness has always been
            in the Divinity."
            The Third Testament
Let's begin by analyzing a few verses of the Bible with the purpose of finding in them that truth the some part of humanity cannot see or acknowledge.

First, it is important to point out that the Book of Genesis, which supposedly Moses wrote -who himself was a strong believer of the only one God, Jehova or Yahve ("...Jehova is God Dt:4:35:), initiates with a surprising statement:

  "In the beginning God (Elohiym in
  the original Hebrew text) created
  the heaven and the earth. And the
  earth was without form, and void;
  and darkness [was] upon the face
  of the deep. And the Spirit of God
  (Elohiym) moved upon the face of
  the waters."
  Genesis 1:1,2
Why is this surprising? Because Elohiym, the original Hebrew word used in the text... means gods or divinities, in plural form!

If we translate it in a close relationship with the original text, the versicle will then read as follows:

  "In the beginning the divinities
  created the heaven and the earth.
  And the earth was without form, and
  void; and darkness [was] upon the
  face of the deep. And the Spirit of
  the divinities moved upon the face
  of the waters."
Do this mean that there are many gods? Not a chance, if we keep on reading and analyzing:
  "And God said, Let us make man in
  our image, after our likeness: and
  let them have dominion over the
  fish of the sea, and over the fowl
  of the air, and over the cattle,
  and over all the earth, and over
  every creeping thing that creepeth6
  upon the earth. So God created man
  in his [own] image, in the image of
  God created he him; male and female
  created he them."
  Gn:1:26,27
We have talked in other ocassions of how profound this short part of Genesis is.

A meticulous analysis of it will make us see, to begin with, the use of the third person in plural when referring to God, in concordance with the first verse mentioned before. Thus, "shall we" "to our image" "to our likeness" are expressions that, corresponding to the sense of that first verse, even at this day baffle the theologians of the different religions, whom by not getting to comprehend the reason for this apparent contradiction that may imply polytheism, throw to the table explanations that just don't cut it.

Of course, there will be those that will say that the use of the plural regarding God is because of the majestatic figure of speech, used by kings and emperors. But then, it this were the case, where does the "created them" at the end of verse 27 comes from? Here, surely the text IS NOT referring to God but rather to the creature... or creatures. This is, in no way, a majestatic use of the language. Besides, in the rest of the Bible, the prophets and the inspired writers, including Moses and Joshua, did not use this majestatic treatment when speaking of God.

It is because of this apparent contradiction, that they decided to unify, in the different translations, the word "Elohiym" (divinities) that appears all over the first chapter of Genesis as well as in the three first verses of the third chapter, using for it the word with the word YHVW (Jehova or Yahve): The one that is starting from verse 4 of that same chapter 2, would be used there forth in the original Hebrew text.

The Bible version that we have used in this little paper is the one known as King James Version or KJV, in which, after several revisions through the date of its first publication, its editors decided to use the word "God", singular form, instead of Eloyhim, the plural form and "Lord God" in place of the original term YHWV... in other modern translations, the words "Lord", "Jehova" or "Yahve" have been used indistinctly... a matter of different criteria.

But still remains as an indisputable fact that the original text mentions that the Creation was made by the divinities, in plural... How should we interpret this?

It can hardly be atributted to Moses pantheism in any form, that is to say, it is wrong to state that he believed in the existence of many gods; being the envoy of the First Era, he knew perfectly well that there is only one true God, though as we have seen, Moses knew also that within God, there were, at least, two essential natures.

All quotes taken from The Third Testament

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